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I have found this question & answer in Wendell Odom's ICND1 book as follows:
Answer: a & b
My doubt is when PC1 forwards tp PC2 , automatically PC2 FA0/2 would have been registered in the switch SW1 MAC table during the first frame reaching PC2 from PC1. Then when PC3 sends the frame to PC2, no need for flooding it to both FA0/1 & FA0/2
My answer is only b
Anybody please suggest me?